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NREMT Emergency Medical Technicians Exam Sample Questions (Q41-Q46):

NEW QUESTION # 41
A 3-year-old patient ingested laundry detergent. The patient is drowsy and has crackles in all lung fields. What should most concern the EMT at this time? Select the three answer options that are correct.

A. Vomiting
B. Respiratory failure
C. Esophageal perforation
D. Seizure
E. Acid reflux
F. Hypoglycemia

Answer: A,B,C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Laundry detergent ingestion - especially in the case ofliquid detergent pods- is associated withcaustic airway and gastrointestinal injuries. The presence ofcracklesanddrowsinessare signs of aspiration and possiblerespiratory failure. Vomiting increases the risk ofaspiration pneumonitis, andesophageal perforationis a life-threatening complication from corrosive ingestion.
While seizure and hypoglycemia are possible complications of toxic ingestion, they are not as immediately linked to the detergent profile as airway injury and aspiration risk.
References:
NREMT Pediatric Toxicology and Airway Emergencies
National Poison Data System (NPDS) Annual Report
AAOS Emergency Care Textbook (11th ed.) - Pediatric Poisoning and Toxin Exposure

NEW QUESTION # 42
A 12-year-old male suffered helmet-to-helmet contact while playing football. A bystander states, "He passed out for several seconds, then walked off the field under his own power." He is now unresponsive, and his vital signs are BP 180/110, P 90, and R 6. You should suspect

A. Epidural hematoma
B. Intracerebral hematoma
C. Subdural hemorrhage
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Anepidural hematomaclassically presents with a"lucid interval"- a brief period of regained consciousness following head trauma, followed by rapid deterioration. This is due to arterial bleeding, often from themiddle meningeal artery, leading to increasing intracranial pressure.
Signs include:
* High blood pressure
* Decreasing respiratory rate
* Altered LOC or unresponsiveness
Subdural hemorrhages are slower venous bleeds, common in elderly patients. Subarachnoid hemorrhage often presents with "worst headache of life." Intracerebral bleeds are less commonly linked to lucid intervals.
References:
NREMT Trauma Module - Head Injuries
AAOS Emergency Care Textbook (11th ed.), Chapter: Head and Spine Trauma Emergency Neurological Life Support (ENLS) Guidelines - Traumatic Brain Injury

NEW QUESTION # 43
An EMT is using a BVM to ventilate a 28-year-old patient with asthma. The patient is unresponsive, and their vital signs are BP 70/40, P 142, R 8, and SpO2 89% on room air. The patient is becoming increasingly difficult to ventilate. What should the EMT do next?

A. Apply high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
B. Ventilate the patient more forcefully
C. Decrease the rate of ventilations
D. Place the patient on CPAP

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
In patients with asthma experiencing respiratory failure, improper ventilation (especially excessive rates) can lead to air trapping and increased intrathoracic pressure, reducing venous return and worsening hypotension.
Thecorrect techniqueis to ventilate slowly to allow full exhalation - around1 breath every 5-6 secondsfor adults.
CPAPis contraindicated in unresponsive patients who cannot maintain their own airway. Anon-rebreather maskwould be insufficient for an unresponsive patient, andforceful ventilationrisks barotrauma.
References:
NREMT EMT Psychomotor Exam Guide: Airway, Respiration & Ventilation
American Heart Association (AHA) BLS Provider Manual (2020)
National EMS Education Standards (2011) - Airway Management Section

NEW QUESTION # 44
A 30-year-old patient has a stab wound to the left forearm that is bleeding profusely. Which of the following interventions should the EMT perform first?

A. Determine severity of wound
B. Assess the airway
C. Apply direct pressure
D. Place a tourniquet

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Thefirst step in hemorrhage controlfor external bleeding is alwaysdirect pressureusing gloved hands or dressing. Only if this fails or the bleeding issevere and life-threatening(especially from extremities) should a tourniquetbe applied.
Assessing the airway is critical in overall trauma care but not thefirst priorityin isolated extremity hemorrhage. Severity assessment is secondary tobleeding control.
References:
NREMT Trauma Skills: Bleeding Control/Shock
Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) Guidelines - Hemorrhage Management National EMS Education Standards - Soft Tissue Injuries

NEW QUESTION # 45
A 65-year-old patient with a history of angina reports chest pain and shortness of breath after playing golf. The patient stated the pain began one hour ago and has not stopped with rest. The vital signs are BP 86/64, P 112, R 22, and SpO# 89% on room air. Which of the following actions should the EMT do next?

A. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
B. Give nitroglycerin
C. Administer CPAP
D. Provide nebulized albuterol

Answer: A

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
This is ahigh-risk cardiac eventdue to unstable angina or possiblemyocardial infarction. The EMT should:
* Administer oxygenif SpO# is <94%
* Avoid nitroglycerinif systolic BP is <90 mmHg
* Obtain a 12-lead ECGto identify ST-elevation MI (STEMI) and transmit it if trained and authorized CPAP is indicated forpulmonary edema, and albuterol is forbronchospasm, neither of which applies here.
References:
AHA ACLS and BLS Guidelines - ACS Management
NREMT Cardiology Guidelines - Chest Pain/MI
National EMS Education Standards - Cardiovascular Emergencies and ECG Recognition

NEW QUESTION # 46
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NREMT Emergency Medical Technicians Exam Sample Questions (Q41-Q46):

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