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| Topic |
Details |
| Topic 1 |
- Compliance: Regulatory compliance refers to an organization’s commitment to understanding and adhering to applicable laws, policies, and regulations to operate within established legal and ethical standards.
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| Topic 2 |
- Information Management (IM): Information management (IM) encompasses the entire lifecycle of information within an organization—from its collection and storage to its distribution, use, and eventual archiving or disposal.
|
| Topic 3 |
- Risk Management: Risk management is the systematic process of identifying, evaluating, and implementing strategies to reduce or control the impact of potential uncertainties on organizational goals.
|
| Topic 4 |
- Data Security: Data security refers to protecting digital information—such as that stored in databases or networks—from destruction, unauthorized access, or malicious attacks, ensuring confidentiality and integrity.
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| Topic 5 |
- Framework Design: Framework design is the process of developing a reusable structural foundation that supports and guides the creation and organization of software systems.
|
| Topic 6 |
- Continuous Improvement Process (CI, CIP): A continuous or continual improvement process (CIP or CI) involves ongoing, systematic efforts to enhance products, services, or operational processes to achieve higher efficiency and effectiveness over time.
|
APMG-International ISO/IEC 27001 (2022) Foundation Exam Sample Questions (Q12-Q17):
NEW QUESTION # 12
Which action is an organization required to take to ensure that personnel are competent to perform their assigned tasks within the ISMS?
- A. Ensure that the controls for compliance with legal and contractual requirements are implemented
- B. Hold up-to-date records on training, skills, experience and qualifications
- C. Ensure all personnel are trained to ISO/IEC 27001 Foundation level
- D. Identify products which could be used in the organization to improve ISMS performance and effectiveness
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clause 7.2 (Competence) requires the organization to:
* "determine the necessary competence of person(s) doing work under its control that affects its information security performance;"
* "ensure that these persons are competent on the basis of appropriate education, training, or experience;"
* "retain appropriate documented information as evidence of competence." This makesholding up-to-date records on training, skills, experience, and qualifications(D) the correct answer. Option A is irrelevant to competence. Option B is incorrect since ISO does not require Foundation- level training - competence is context-based. Option C is related to compliance but does not ensure individual competence.
Thus, the verified correct answer isD.
NEW QUESTION # 13
Which statement about the conduct of audits is true?
- A. During Stage 1 of a certification audit, evidence is collected by observing activities
- B. Third party audits are conducted by a customer of the organization
- C. One of the focus areas for a surveillance audit is the output from internal audits and management reviews
- D. The certificate issued after a successful re-certification audit in typical schemes lasts for one year
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 9.2 (Internal Audit) and Clause 9.3 (Management Review) highlight that audit outputs and management reviews are key inputs for evaluating ISMS performance. Surveillance audits, conducted by Certification Bodies, check ongoing compliance and effectiveness. ISO certification schemes (per ISO/IEC
17021) require surveillance audits to verify whether corrective actions and continuous improvements are being made. A critical focus area is theresults of internal audits and management reviews, ensuring that the organization maintains its ISMS between certification cycles.
Option A is incorrect - third-party audits are performed by independent Certification Bodies, not customers.
Option B is incorrect - certificates are typically valid forthree yearswith annual surveillance. Option D is incorrect - Stage 1 is primarily adocumentation and readiness review, not evidence observation.
Therefore, the verified correct answer isC.
NEW QUESTION # 14
Which item is required to be included in an information security policy?
- A. A framework enabling concerns with the information security policy to be addressed
- B. A Statement of Applicability which defines the necessary controls to be implemented
- C. A commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security
- D. A plan for the continual improvement of the information security management system
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 5.2 (Information security policy) requires that the policy:
* "includes information security objectives (or provides a framework for setting them)"
* "includes a commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security"
* "includes a commitment to continual improvement of the ISMS."
Among the listed options, the exact mandatory requirement is"a commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security". Option B partially reflects Clause 5.2 (commitment to continual improvement), but the wording given in the standard prioritizes the satisfaction of applicable requirements (e.g., legal, regulatory, contractual). Option C is not a policy requirement. Option D (Statement of Applicability) is a separate mandatory document (Clause 6.1.3) and not part of the policy itself.
Thus, the correct answer isA.
NEW QUESTION # 15
Which audit activity related to ISO/IEC 27001 may be carried out by a practitioner?
- A. Conduct a surveillance audit of their own area of the organization
- B. Conduct an audit of a Certification Body
- C. Conduct an internal audit of the organization
- D. Conduct an audit of an Accredited Training Organization
Answer: C
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27001 requires internal audits and sets out how they must be conducted: "The organization shall conduct internal audits at planned intervals..." (9.2.1) and "plan, establish, implement and maintain an audit programme(s)... [and] select auditors and conduct audits that ensure objectivity and the impartiality of the audit process" (9.2.2). These extracts confirm that practitioners (internal to the organization) can conduct internal audits provided objectivity and impartiality are ensured (e.g., they do not audit their own work). Surveillance audits (option A) and audits of Accredited Training Organizations or Certification Bodies (options C, D) are third-party activities outside the remit of an internal practitioner under ISO/IEC 27001; the standard's audit requirement is focused on the organization's own internal audit programme. Therefore, conducting an internal audit (B) is the correct practitioner activity per Clause 9.2.
NEW QUESTION # 16
Which statement describes Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?
- A. Provides measures to determine risk treatment effectiveness
- B. Defines the criteria for accepting risks
- C. Defines a mandatory list of controls that shall be implemented
- D. Provides a reference list of information security controls and their requirements
Answer: D
Explanation:
Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001:2022 is titled:
"Reference control objectives and controls." It provides areference list of information security controls, structured into 4 themes: organizational, people, physical, and technological.
The standard explicitly states in Clause 6.1.3: "Organizations can design controls as required or identify them from any source. Annex A contains a list of possible information security controls." This means controls in Annex A are not mandatory (eliminating option C). Risk acceptance criteria (A) are defined in Clause 6.1.2, not Annex A. Annex A also does not provide measures for treatment effectiveness (D).
Thus, Annex A is best described as areference list of information security controls. Correct answer:B.
NEW QUESTION # 17
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